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Did Jesus have all power, when there was a place where he could do no mighty work?

Hard question · The life of Jesus · raised by 3 of the lists sceptics circulate

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The passages

Matthew 28:18

The risen Jesus says that all power in heaven and on earth is given to him.

And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

John 3:35

The Father loves the Son and has given all things into his hand.

The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all things into his hand.

Mark 6:5–6

In Nazareth he could do no mighty work except heal a few sick people, and he marvelled at their unbelief.

And he could there do no mighty work, save that he laid his hands upon a few sick folk, and healed them. And he marvelled because of their unbelief. And he went round about the villages, teaching.

Matthew 20:23

To sit at his right and left is not his to give; it is for those for whom the Father has prepared it.

And he saith unto them, Ye shall drink indeed of my cup, and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with: but to sit on my right hand, and on my left, is not mine to give, but it shall be given to them for whom it is prepared of my Father.

The objection

Jesus says, “All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth,” and John says the Father has “given all things into his hand”. Yet at Nazareth Jesus “could there do no mighty work”, and he told James and John that places at his right and left were “not mine to give”. How can he have all power if there were things he could not do?

The answer

Mark’s ‘could not’ is best read as describing what was fitting, not what was possible. Mark adds at once that Jesus healed “a few sick folk” there and “marvelled because of their unbelief” (Mark 6:5–6), and Matthew tells the same visit as “he did not many mighty works there because of their unbelief” (Matthew 13:58). Jesus’ miracles were signs given to faith, not shows for people who had already rejected him, and Luke tells how the people of Nazareth once tried to throw him from a cliff (Luke 4:29). The Bible often says ‘cannot’ of what one will not rightly do, as when the angel tells Lot, “I cannot do any thing till thou be come thither” (Genesis 19:22), and John Gill explains Mark 6:5 in just this way.

In Matthew 20:23 the words ‘it shall be given to them’ are not in the Greek (the KJV prints them in italics); Jesus says the places are “not mine to give; but it is for whom it has been prepared by my Father” (WEB). John Gill took this to mean that Jesus does give them, but only to those for whom the Father has prepared them. Either way, the places are settled by the Father’s plan. Throughout his ministry the Son acts in step with the Father’s will (John 5:19, 30), which is not a lack of power but the way he uses it.

Other answers Christians give

Authority given to the risen Christ

Some note that Matthew 28:18 speaks of authority (Greek exousia) given to the risen Christ after his humbling (Philippians 2:7–9), while Mark 6 belongs to the time when he lived in dependence on the Father as a servant.

From the classic commentators

not that Christ had no power in himself to work miracles … but it was not fit and proper that he should do any there … it is an usual way of speaking with the Hebrews, when either it is not ‘fit’ and proper that a thing should be done, or they ‘will’ not do it, to say it cannot be doneJohn Gill, Exposition on Mark 6:5 (1746–1763)

Sources

Further reading

Raised by: W. H. Burr, Self-Contradictions of the Bible (1860), EvilBible.com, The Skeptic’s Annotated Bible. Only the verse references come from these lists.

Checked 2026-10-22. All hard questions