Did John the Baptist know who Jesus was before he baptised him?
Hard question · The life of Jesus · raised by 1 of the lists sceptics circulate
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When Jesus comes to be baptised, John tries to stop him: “I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?”
Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
John says, “I knew him not”, but God had told him that the one on whom he saw the Spirit descend and remain was the one; he saw it and bore witness.
And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water. And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him. And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost. And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God.
The objection
In Matthew, John recognises Jesus as soon as he arrives and protests that Jesus ought to baptise him instead. In John’s Gospel the Baptist says twice, “I knew him not”, and that he learned who Jesus was when he saw the Spirit descend on him, which happened after the baptism. So did John know Jesus beforehand or not?
The answer
‘I knew him not’ need not mean that John had no idea who Jesus was. John is explaining why his witness can be trusted: it did not rest on family ties or his own impressions, but on a sign God had given him beforehand: “Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he” (John 1:33). The Greek, kagō ouk ēdein auton, is emphatic, ‘I myself did not know him’: left to himself, John could not have been sure that this was the Messiah. He uses the same verb a few verses earlier when he tells the crowd, “there standeth one among you, whom ye know not” (John 1:26). They had seen Jesus; they did not know who he was.
The two men were related (Luke 1:36), but they may never have met. John grew up “in the deserts till the day of his shewing unto Israel” (Luke 1:80), and Jesus at Nazareth in Galilee; Gill and Barnes both think the baptism was their first meeting. When Jesus came, John sensed at once that he was holier than himself, whether from what he knew of the family’s story, from Jesus’ bearing, or from God’s prompting, much as Samuel was told which of Jesse’s sons to anoint when David came in (1 Samuel 16:12). So he protested, “I have need to be baptized of thee” (Matthew 3:14). The sign at the baptism then made it certain. As Barnes puts it, John may have had some intimation before, but by the sign he would know it beyond doubt.
Other answers Christians give
Not known as the Messiah
Many read John’s words as ‘I did not know him as the Messiah’, whether or not he had met Jesus before. On this view John knew Jesus as a relative and a righteous man, which explains his reluctance in Matthew 3:14, and the sign showed him that Jesus was the Christ.
From the classic commentators
It does not follow, however, that he had no intimation before this that Jesus was the Christ, but it means that by this he should know it infallibly.Albert Barnes, Notes on the Bible, on John 1:33 (1832)
Sources
- Albert Barnes, Notes on the Bible: John 1 (1832), at Bible Hub
- John Gill, Exposition of the Bible: John 1 (1746–1763), at Bible Hub
- Albert Barnes, Notes on the Bible: Matthew 3 (1832), at Bible Hub